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The core techniques of modern biotechnology is/are
(c): The genetic and chemical engineering are two core techniques of modern biotechnology.
Which of the following processes/techniques can be included under biotechnology?
(i) Gene cloning
(ii) Synthesis of a gene
(iii) Correcting a defective gene
(iv) Developing a DNA vaccine
(d)
Plasmid used to construct the first recombinant DNA was isolated from which bacterium species?
(b) : The first recombinant DNA was constructed by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972. They cut the piece of DNA from a plasmid carrying antibiotic resistance gene in the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium and linked it to the plasmid of Escherichia coli.
Genetic engineering is possible because
(a) : Restriction endonucleases play major role in genetic engineering as they can cut DNA at specific sites, thus allowing manipulation or modification in its sequence.
The term ‘molecular scissors’ refer to
(b) : Restriction endonuclease enzymes are also known as molecular scissors or biological scissors or chemical knives or chemical scalpels.
The term ‘chemical knife’ refers to
(b) : Restriction endonuclease enzymes are also known as molecular scissors or biological scissors or chemical knives or chemical scalpels.
In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector refers to
(c) : The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a fragment of foreign DNA into a suitable host is called vehicle DNA or cloning vector or gene carrier. When desired gene is introduced into a vector, recombinant DNA is formed. Vectors may be plasmids, bacteriophages, cosmids, phagemids, Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs), Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs), transposons, viruses, etc.
One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid the vector in genetic engineering is
(b) : Plasmids are extra-chromosomal, self replicating, usually circular, double stranded DNA molecules found naturally in many bacteria and also in some yeasts. The plasmid that is used as carrier for transferring a fragment of foreign DNA into a suitable host is called vehicle DNA or cloning vector or gene carrier.
The term ‘recombinant DNA’ refers to
(b) : After cutting the source DNA and the vector DNA with a specific restriction enzyme, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the cut vector with space are mixed and ligase enzyme is added. This results in the formation of rDNA or hybrid DNA or chimeric DNA.
The term ‘chimeric DNA’ refers to
(c) : After cutting the source DNA and the vector DNA with a specific restriction enzyme, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the cut vector with space are mixed and ligase enzyme is added. This results in the formation of rDNA or hybrid DNA or chimeric DNA.
Select the mismatched pair.
(b)
Which of the following is not a tool of genetic engineering?
(d) : Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been changed by manipulations. They are not a tool of genetic engineering but a product of it.
The first restriction endonuclease isolated was
(d)
The letter ‘ \(R\) ‘ in EcoR I is derived from
(b) : In EcoR I, capital letter \(E\) comes from the genus Escherichia. The letters co are from the species coli. The letter \(R\) is from RY13 (strain). The Roman number I indicates that it was the first enzyme isolated from the bacterium E.coli RY 13.
Match column I with column II with respect to the nomenclature of restriction enzyme EcoRI and select the correct answer from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|c|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { E } & \text { (i) } & \text { Ist in order of identification } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { Co } & \text { (ii) } & \text { Name of genus } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { R } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Name of species } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { I } & \text { (iv) } & \text { Name of strain } \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(d)
The source of the restriction enzyme Hind III is
(b)
A restriction endonuclease breaks bonds between the
(c) : Restriction endonuclease enzymes are also known as molecular scissors or biological scissors or chemical knives or chemical scalpels..
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Restriction endonuclease enzymes recognise a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Statement 2 : Restriction endonuclease enzymes are called as molecular scissors or biological scissors.
(a)
Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps I and II.
(a)
Which of the following correctly depicts the recognition site for EcoR I?
(d) : The recognition sequence for enzyme EcoR I is a palindromic sequence GAATC. The enzyme cuts between $G and A bases, in their backbone on both the strands, resulting in formation of sticky ends.
The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made of
(c) : The single-stranded free ends that project from each fragment of DNA duplex are unpaired bases and are known as “sticky ends”. Sticky ends can join with similar complementary ends of DNA fragment from some other sources.
The restriction enzyme responsible for the cleavage of following sequence is
(b) : Hind Il was the first discovered restriction endonuclease. It was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae Rd. It produces blunt ends.
Identify the palindromic sequence in the following.
(b) : The palindromes in DNA are base pair sequences that are the same when read forward (left to right) or backward (right to left) from a central axis of symmetry.
Thus, \(\frac{\text { GGATCC }}{\text { CCTAGG }}\) is a palindromic sequence.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding EcoR I restriction endonuclease enzyme?
(c)
If a plasmid vector is digested with EcoR I at a single site, then
(b) : Plasmid is a circular DNA, if it is digested at a single site, one fragment will be produced with two sticky ends.
How many fragments will be generated if you digest a linear DNA molecule with a restriction enzyme having four recognition sites on the DNA?
(c)
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How many fragments will be generated on the digestion of a closed circular DNA molecule with a restriction enzyme having six recognition sites on the DNA?
(c)
In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector is cleaved by
(c) : Plasmid vector is cleaved by same restriction enzyme that cleaves donor DNA leading to creation of sticky ends.
Gel electrophoresis is a
(c) : Gel electrophoresis is a technique of separation of molecules such as DNA, RNA or protein, under the influence of an electrical field, so that they migrate in the direction of electrode bearing the opposite charge, viz. positively charged molecules move towards cathode (-ve electrode) and negatively charged molecules travel towards anode (+ve electrode) through a medium/matrix.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to deliver desirable gene into plant cells.
(ii) Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs.
(iii) Separated DNA fragments cannot be visualised without staining on an agarose gel electrophoresis.
(iv) ‘Ori’ is the sequence responsible for controlling the copy number.
(v) DNA is a positively charged molecule.
(b) : DNA is a negatively charged molecule.
Having become an expert on gel electrophoresis, you are asked to examine a gel. Where would you find the smallest segments of DNA?
(a) : Since DNA is itself negatively charged, it would move towards the positive electrode. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated on the basis of charge and masses. Thus, smaller the DNA fragment farther it moves from the well.
Which of the following steps should be performed by a person in order to visualise the bands of DNA fragments obtained from gel electrophoresis?
(c)
Study the given figure carefully and select the incorrect statements regarding this.
(i) It represents a typical agarose gel electrophoresis in which lane 1 contains undigested DNA.
(ii) Smallest DNA bands are formed at A and largest DNA bands are formed at B.
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised after staining in the visible light.
(iv) The separated DNA bands are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as elution.
(b) : The DNA fragments separate according to their size through the agarose gel, with smaller fragments moving farther away as compared to larger ones. The DNA fragments can be visualised by staining them with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiations.
Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
(b) : DNA ligases are also called genetic gum. They join two individual fragments of double stranded DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds between them thus help in sealing of DNA fragments. Therefore acts as molecular glue. The enzyme used most often is \(T_4\) DNA ligase.
If you want to recover many copies of the target DNA, you will choose a vector
(c) : Vectors that have high number per cell will have high copy number of their genome within the bacterial cell. If we link an alien piece of DNA with vector, we can multiply its number equal to the copy number of the vector. Any piece of DNA when linked to the ‘ori’ sequence, can be made to replicate within the host cells. This property of ‘ori’ is used to make a number of copies of the linked DNA. If we want to obtain many copies of the target DNA, then it should be cloned in such a vector whose ‘ori’ supports high copy number.
Gel electrophoresis is used for
(d)
Which one of the following characteristics is generally not preferred for a cloning vector?
(c)
Read the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced when a DNA has been cut by different restriction enzymes.
(ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.
(iii) Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease to be isolated.
(iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to replicate within bacterial cells by integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA.
(v) DNA fragments move towards the cathode under an electric field through a medium.
(c) : When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’ produced, which can be joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligase. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA. DNA fragments move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium or matrix.
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
(c) : Sall is a restriction enzyme isolated from Streptomyces albus.
Match column I with column II and select the correct answer from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { amp }^R \text { gene } & \text { (i) } & \text { Artificial plasmid } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Separation of DNA } \\
\text { fragments }
\end{array} & \text { (ii) } & \text { Selectable marker } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Hind III } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Electrophoresis } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { pBR322 } & \text { (iv) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Haemophilus influenzae } \\
\text { Rd }
\end{array} \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(c)
The gene ‘rop’ present in pBR322 cloning vector, codes for
(b)
Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of E. coli cloning vector p B R 322 and select the correct option.
(d) : pBR322 was the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez. It is widely used in gene cloning experiments.
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The cloning vector is required to have very few, preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
Statement 2 : Presence of more than one recognition sites within a cloning vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate the process of gene cloning.
(a)
In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet \({ }^R\) ) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?
(b) : In plasmid vector pBR322, two unique restriction sites Pst I and Pvu I are located within the amp \({ }^R\) gene and BamH I, Sall, etc., are located within the tet \({ }^R\) gene. When restriction enzyme BamH I or Sall is used, the DNA insert is placed within the gene tet \(^R\) making it nonfunctional.
Read the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Electrophoresis is a technique used for the separation of molecules based on their size and charge.
(ii) Plasmids are extra-chromosomal, self-replicating, usually circular, double stranded DNA molecules found naturally in many bacteria and also in some yeast.
(iii) It is not advisable to use an exonuclease enzyme while producing a recombinant DNA molecule.
(iv) In EcoR II, the roman numeral I indicates that it was the first enzyme isolated from E.coli RY 13.
(d)
pBR322 was the first artificial cloning vector to be constructed. What does “BR” stands for?
(b)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?
(d) : In plasmid vector pBR322, two unique restriction sites Pst I and Pvu I are located within the amp \({ }^R\) gene and BamH I, Sall, etc., are located within the tet \({ }^R\) gene. When restriction enzyme BamH I or Sall is used, the DNA insert is placed within the gene tet \({ }^R\) making it nonfunctional.
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What will be the effect if pBR322, a cloning vector does not carry ‘ori’ site?
 (d) : For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism, it needs to be a part of a chromosome which has a specific sequence known as ‘origin of replication’ (ori). If ori is not present in a cloning vector, replication will not be initiated.
Using recombinant DNA technology, genes from a donor cell can be inserted into a bacterium for DNA replication and protein synthesis. The kind of cells that can be used as gene donors in this technology are
(d)
An advantage of using yeasts rather than bacteria as recipient cells for the recombinant DNA of eukaryotes is that yeasts can
(b) : Yeasts have been extensively used tor functional expression of eukaryotic genes because they offer several advantages. Yeasts are the simplest eukaryotic organisms and like bacteria are single-celled, genetically well-characterised, easy to grow and manipulate. Since yeast is an eukaryote, it has an intron excision mechanism. Thus, it can be used for producing and expressing recombinant DNA of eukaryotes.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge populations which express the desired gene.
Statement 2 : In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryotes).
(a)
In the process of insertional inactivation
(a) : Alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinants from the non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, \(\beta\)-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the \(\beta\)-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour, these are identified as recombinant colonies.
If a person obtains transformants by inserting a recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of enzyme \(\beta\)-galactosidase, he will separate out recombinants from non-recombinants by which of the following observations?
(b) : Alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinants from the non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, \(\beta\)-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the \(\beta\)-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour, these are identified as recombinant colonies.
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : In insertional inactivation, blue colour produced by bacterial colonies indicates that the plasmid does not have an insert into the bacterial genome.
Statement 2 : Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of \(\beta\)-galactosidase enzyme and the colonies do not produce any colour.
(a)
The term ” competent” refers to
(c) : Transformation is a process by which a cell takes up naked DNA fragment from the environment, incorporates it into its own chromosomal DNA and finally expresses the trait controlled by the incoming DNA. Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it can not pass through membranes, so the bacterial cells must be made competent to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium \(\left(\mathrm{Ca}^{2+}\right)\) which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
Which of the following bacteria is used as a vector for plant genetic engineering?
(a)
Which of the following microbes transform normal plant and animal cells to cancerous cells respectively?
(c)
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The tumour inducing plasmid (Ti plasmid) acts as a cloning vector in recombinant DNA technology.
Statement 2 : The Ti plasmid which is used in the mechanisms of delivering genes to a cell remains pathogenic.
(b) : The tumuii inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been modified into cloning vector which is not pathogenic to the plants, however, it is still able to use its mechanism to deliver genes of our interest into various plants.
\(\qquad\)
a crown gall bacterium, is called as ‘natural genetic engineer’ of plants.
(c) : A soil-inhabiting plant bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants. It is able to transfer a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ into the plant cells. The T-DNA causes tumours, the tumours are called crown galls. Tumour formation is induced by Ti plasmid (Ti for tumour inducing). As gene transfer occurs without human effort, the bacterium is called natural genetic engineer of plants.
DNA cannot pass through a cell membrane as
(b)
During insertional inactivation, the presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. The blue colour is produced by the enzyme
(c) : Alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinants from the non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, \(\beta\)-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the \(\beta\)-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour, these are identified as recombinant colonies.
The correct sequence of making a cell competent is
(a)
Match the terms given in column I with their definitions in column Il and select the correct answer from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { Transformation } & \text { (i) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Sequences cut by } \\
\text { restriction enzymes }
\end{array} \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { Recognition site } & \text { (ii) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Process by which DNA } \\
\text { fragments are separated } \\
\text { based on their size }
\end{array} \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Gel electrophoresis } & \text { (iii) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Plasmid DNA that has } \\
\text { incorporated human } \\
\text { DNA }
\end{array} \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Recombinant DNA } & \text { (iv) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Process by which } \\
\text { bacteria take up pieces } \\
\text { of DNA from the } \\
\text { environment }
\end{array} \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
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(b)
Which of the following is required for microinjection method of gene transfer?
(d) : A single stranded DNA or RNA joined with a racloactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells. It is followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having the mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not have the complementarity with the mutated gene.
Micro-injection is a method used to
(d)
In biolistic method of gene transfer, the micro-particles coated with foreign DNA are bombarded into target cells at a very high velocity. These micro-particles are made up of
(d)
The different steps of recombinant DNA technology are given below randomly.
(i) Isolation of the DNA fragments or genes to be cloned.
(ii) Introduction of the recombinant DNA into a suitable cell (usually E. coll) called host (transformation).
(iii) Multiplication/expression of the introduced gene in the host.
(iv) Selection of the transformed host cells and identification of the clone containing the desired gene/DNA fragment.
(v) Insertion of the isolated gene in a suitable plasmid vector.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps?
(d)
Process used for amplification or multiplication of DNA in DNA fingerprinting is
(a) : The animals which carry foreign genes are called transgenic animals. The foreign genes inserted into the genome of the animal using recombinant DNA technology are called transgenes.
Fill up the blanks and select the correct option.
(i) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases \(\qquad\) only when the sequence \(\qquad\) is present in the DNA duplex.
(ii) Disruption of the cell membranes can be achieved by treating the bacterial cells, plant cells and fungal cells with enzymes respectively \(\qquad\) and \(\qquad\)
(iii) Since DNA has a \(\qquad\) charge, it moves towards the \(\qquad\) of the electrophoretic chamber.
(d) : Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although \(95 \%\) of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
In the isolation of DNA, removal of protein and RNA is carried out by enzymes \(\qquad\) and \(\qquad\) respectively.
(c) : Transgenic organism is one that has become transformed following the introduction of novel genes into its genome. It is most frequently achieved by integration of cloned DNA sequences following their injection into the fertilised egg. This fertilised egg. divides mitotically to form the whole organism so that all the cells of the organism will carry the transferred genes. The transferred genes are known as transgenes.
During isolation of genetic material, the chemical used to precipitate out the purified DNA is
(a)
Precipitates of purified DNA after the addition of chilled ethanol are seen as a collection of fine threads in suspension. This process is referred as
(a)
The polymerase chain reaction is a technique used for
 (d) : ANDI is the first transgenic monkey. It has been named ANDI, the acronym of “inserted DNA”. In this DNA of a fluorescent jelly fish was introduced into an unfertilised egg of a Rhesus monkey in test tube.
The given flow chart depicts the steps to transfer a desirable gene of interest into a plant.
Identify the missing steps ( A, B and C ) with regard to following statements and select the correct option.
(i) Joining of desirable gene to a suitable cloning vector using ligases to create a recombinant DNA molecule.
(ii) Selection of transformed cells.
(iii) Transferring the recombinant DNA molecules to the target cells.
\(
\begin{aligned}
& \text { A. A – i } \\
& \text { B – iii } \\
& \text { C – ii }
\end{aligned}
\)
B.
\(
\begin{aligned}
& \text { A – i } \\
& \text { B – ii } \\
& \text { C – iii }
\end{aligned}
\)
C.
\(
D.
[latex]
\begin{aligned}
& \text { A – ii } \\
& \text { B – iii } \\
& \text { C- i }
\end{aligned}
\)
(c) : In 1990, Tracy, the transgenic ewe was born in Scotland.
Primers are
(a) : Primers are small, chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the sequences present at \(3^{\prime}\) end of the template DNA. They hybridise to the target DNA region, one to each strand of the double helix. These primers are oriented with their ends facing each other allowing synthesis of the DNA towards one another.
Enzyme ‘Taq polymerase’ used in PCR, has been isolated from bacterium
(b) : The final step of PCR is extension, wherein Taq DNA polymerase (isolated from a thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus) synthesises the DNA region between the primers, using dNTPs (deoxynucleoside triphosphates) and \(\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}\). Taq polymerase remains active during high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA.
Which of the following statements are correct for the enzyme Taq polymerase?
(i) It remains active during the high temperature induced denaturation of dsDNA.
(ii) It requires primers for carrying out the process of polymerisation.
(iii) It synthesises the RNA region between the primers, using dNTPs and \(\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}\).
(a) : The final step of PCR is extension, wherein Taq DNA polymerase (isolated from a thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus) synthesises the DNA region between the primers, using dNTPs (deoxynucleoside triphosphates) and \(\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}\). Taq polymerase remains active during high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA.
Match column I (enzyme) with column II (characteristid activity) and select the correct answer from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Taq DNA } \\
\text { polymerase }
\end{array} & \text { (i) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Cleaves the ends of linear } \\
\text { DNA }
\end{array} \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { Exonuclease } & \text { (ii) } & \text { Breakdown of fungal cell wall } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Protease } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Stable above } 90^{\circ} \mathrm{C} \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Chitinase } & \text { (iv) } & \text { Made only by eukaryotic cells } \\
\hline & & \text { (v) } & \text { Degradation of proteins } \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(d)
Which one of the following is not a correct match?
(c)
The correct sequence of different steps of polymerase chain reaction is
(c) : Polymerase chain reaction is a technique used for amplification of DNA fragments. Its amplification cycle involve three steps – denaturation, annealing and polymerisation which are repeated for ‘ \(n\) ‘ cycles.
Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
(c)
Which of the following is required to perform polymerase chain reaction?
(d)
Which of the following is not used to transfer the recombinant DNA into the host?
(c) : Bioreactors are considered as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products by microbes, plants and animal cells or their enzymes. To produce large quantities of these products, bioreactors are used where large volumes ( \(100-1000\) litres) of culture can be processed. Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for obtaining the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions such as temperature, pH , substrate, vitamins, oxygen and salts.
Identify the steps that are involved in PCR.
(A) Denaturation
(B) Annealing
(C) Extension
(D) Down stream processing
(c)
Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
(b)
If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to antibiotic ampicillin is transferred to E.coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin resistant cells. If such bacteria are transferred on agar plates containing ampicillin, only transformants will grow and the untransformed recipient cells will die. The ampicillin resistant gene in this case is called as
(a) : The cloning vector requires the presence of a selectable marker, which helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.
In a polymerase chain reaction after the denaturation step why the mixture needs to cool down to a lower temperature?
(a)
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