0 of 99 Questions completed
Questions:
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading…
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You must first complete the following:
0 of 99 Questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
Family planning programme was initiated in
(d) : In India, ‘family planning’ programme was initiated in 1951 at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal.
RCH stands for
(d)
Reproductive health in society can be improved by
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools
(ii) Increased medical assistance
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs
(iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child
(v) Encouraging myths and misconceptions
(c) : Introduction of sex education in school should be encouraged to provide right information to the young so as to discourage children from believing in myths and having misconceptions about sex related aspects.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Family planning programmes were initiated in 1951.
(ii) According to WHO, reproductive health means total well being in the physical, social, behavioural and emotional aspects of reproduction.
(iii) ‘Saheli’ was developed at CDRI in Lucknow.
(iv) Amniocentesis should not be banned as it is a fetal sex determination test.
(c) : Amniocentesis is a disorder detection test based on chromosomal pattern, but is being misused to determine the sex of the fetus and kill the normal female fetuses. Therefore, it is legally banned to avoid female feticide.
Amniocentesis is a technique used to
(c) : In amniocentesis, amniotic fluid containing cells from the skin of the fetus and other sources is withdrawn with a syringe. These cells are then examined to detect certain biochemical, enzymatic and hereditary genetic abnormalities in embryo.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Amniocentesis is often misused.
Statement 2 : Amniocentesis is being used to determine the sex of the fetus so that female fetus may be aborted.
(a)
Which of the following statements is correct?
(d)
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing fetus by amniocentesis?
(a) : Amniocentesis is used to detect hereditary and enzymatic abnormalities in the fetus. Down’s syndrome, cystic fibrosis and colourblindness are genetic disorders while jaundice is an infectious disease.
All are the problems related to reproductive health, except
(b)
The best way to decrease population of a country is
(d) : Practising and implementing family planning by adopting various contraceptive methods, is one of the best ways to decrease the population of a country.
Cause for increased population growth in India is
(d) : The rapid increase in population over a relatively short period is called population explosion. A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate, increase in birth rate, lack of education and an increase in number of people in reproducible age are some of the few causes for increased population growth in India.
Which of the following are the reasons for population explosion?
(i) Increased health facilities
(ii) Rapid increase in MMR
(iii) Rapid increase in IMR
(iv) Rapid decrease in MMR
(v) Decrease in number of people reaching reproductive age
(a)
Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population?
(a) : Natality is the proportion of births to the total population in a place at a given time, while mortality is the death rate per thousand individuals. Immigration is the movement of individuals into an area and emigration is movement of individuals out of an area. Therefore, natality and immigration will increase population.
Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are
(d)
Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of over population?
(d)
Carrying capacity is
(a) : Maximum number of individuals which the environment can sustain is referred to as its carrying capacity.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Physiological capacity of organisms to produce offspring under natural conditions is called as reproductive potential.
Statement 2 : Minimum number of individuals which an environment can sustain is referred to as its carrying capacity.
(b) : Maximum number of individuals which the environment can sustain is referred to as its carrying capacity.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: The world population was around 2 billions in 1900 which has rocketed to about 6 billions by 2000 .
Statement 2 : Increase in longevity due to decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate has been some major causes of population explosion.
(a)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
(b) : An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily available, effective and reversible with no or least side-effects.
Which of the following correctly describes the measures that can be used to control over-population?
(d)
Fill up the blanks in the following paragraph by selecting the correct option.
A. (i) methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
B. (ii) is one such method in which the couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
C. (iii) is another method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
D. (iv) method is based on the fact that ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition.
(c)
On which of the following facts is the method of periodic abstinence based?
(d) : Periodic abstinence is a method of contraception in which the couples avoid intercourse from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle because ovulation can occur during this period. The chances of fertilisation are high during this period. Ovum remains alive for above \(1-2\) days and sperm survives for about 3 days.
What is true for “lactational amenorrhea”?
(i) It means absence of menstruation.
(ii) Ovulation does not occur during the lactational period.
(iii) Chances of conception are almost nil upto six months following parturition.
(iv) Side effects are almost nil.
(v) It increases phagocytosis of sperms.
(vi) It is a natural method of contraception.
(d)
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are made of rubber and are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix before coitus.
Statement 2 : These are chemical barriers of conception which are reusable.
(b) : Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are reusable physical barriers of conception.
Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD)?
(b) : CUT and Cu7 are copper releasing IUDs and LNG-20 is the hormone releasing IUD.
Multiload device contains
(c) : Multiload is a copper containing intrauterine device which prevents conception.
Which of the following is not an intrauterine device?
(c) : Progestasert, Multiload 375 and Lippes, loop are intrauterine devices while norplant is a subcutaneous implant.
What is the work of copper-T?
(b)
IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(d) : Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, multiload 375) increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs (progestasert, LNG-20), make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms. IUDs are inserted by trained doctors and they are ideal contraceptives for the females.
CUT is an intrauterine contraceptive device. Select the option that correctly defines the role of Cu .
(b) : Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, multiload 375) increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs (progestasert, LNG-20), make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms. IUDs are inserted by trained doctors and they are ideal contraceptives for the females.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : CUT, Cu7 and multiload 375 are the hormone releasing IUDs.
Statement 2 : Cu ions released by some IUDs affect the ability of uterine wall to support embryo thus cause contraception.
(d) : Cu7, CuT and Multiload 375 are copper releasing IUDs. Cu ions released by IUDs suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of the sperms.
Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(d)
Select the correct statement regarding IUDs out of the following.
(d)
The birth control device used by women is
(d) : Diaphragm and vault are barrier methods. Copper \(T\) is a copper releasing IUD used by women.
Main disadvantage of intrauterine contraceptive devices is that
(c) : There are certain disadvantages of the intrauterine devices. These are :
(i) IUDs are expelled without the knowledge of the wearer in about 10 to \(15 \%\) of the women and they run the risk of becoming pregnant.
(ii) There is risk of perforation of uterus and infection.
(ii) They can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Which of the following are the drawbacks of the IUDs?
(i) Their spontaneous expulsion, even without the woman’s knowledge.
(ii) They can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
(iii) Risk of perforation of uterus.
(iv) Risk of infection.
(v) They increase the phagocytosis of sperms.
(vi) They suppress sperm motility.
(d) : There are certain disadvantages of the intrauterine devices. These are :
(i) IUDs are expelled without the knowledge of the wearer in about 10 to \(15 \%\) of the women and they run the risk of becoming pregnant.
(ii) There is risk of perforation of uterus and infection.
(ii) They can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
(a) : Oral administration of small dose of either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combination is one of the contraceptive method. They are used in the form of tablets and hence are called oral contraceptive pills.
Progestin-estradiol combined contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation by
(c) : Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) contain both progestin and estrogen. COCs inhibit ovulation by suppressing the gonadotropins FSH and LH. The low levels of FSH and LH usually prevent the development of a dominant follicle in the ovary. As a result, levels of estrogens do not rise, the mid-cycle LH surge does not occur and ovulation does not take place. Even if ovulation does occur, as it does in some cases, COCs may also block implantation in the uterus and inhibit the transport of ova and sperm in the fallopian tubes.
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
(a) : Progesterone pills inhibit follicular development and thus ova formation.
How do the pills work?
(i) It inhibits ovulation and implantation.
(ii) It alters the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
(iii) It inhibits spermatogenesis.
(b) : Small doses of either progestogens or progesteroneestrogen combinations are used in the form of tablets called oral pills by females. Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms inside female genital tract.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: ‘Saheli’ is an oral pill which has high contraceptive value and very little side effects.
Statement 2 : ‘Saheli’ contains progestin with no estrogen and a non-steroidal preparation called centchroman.
(a) : Saheli is an oral pill that contains a non-steroidal preparation called centchroman. It is taken once a week after an initial intake of twice a week dose for 3 months. It has high contraceptive value with very little side effects. It has been developed at Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow.
What is true about “Saheli”?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-week” pill
(iv) Many side effects
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(b)
Identify the figures of the contraceptives given below and select the correct option.
(d)
Which of the following contraceptives are implanted under the skin?
Â
(d) : Figure (d) is of hormone implants. These are six matchstick-sized capsules containing synthetic progesterone which are implanted subcutaneously under the skin of the inner arm above the elbow. The capsules slowly release the progesterone for about five years. This blocks ovulation (by inhibiting the release of FSH and LH from pituitary) and thickens the cervical mucus to prevent sperm transport.
Select the correct statement regarding subcutaneous implantation of synthetic progesterone.
(d) : These are six matchstick-sized capsules containing synthetic progesterone which are implanted subcutaneously under the skin of the inner arm above the elbow. The capsules slowly release the progesterone for about five years. This blocks ovulation (by inhibiting the release of FSH and LH from pituitary) and thickens the cervical mucus to prevent sperm transport.
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Subcutaneous implantation of synthetic progesterone prevents pregnancy for about 5 years.
Statement 2 : A tiny amount of progesterone is steadily released from the inserts into the blood.
(a)
Consider the following statements and select the option stating which ones are true ( T ) and which ones are false (F).
(i) Emigration is the movement of individuals out of a place or country.
(ii) Combined contraceptive pills contain synthetic progesterone and estrogen to check ovulation.
(iii) Depo-Provera are estrogen derivative injections.
(iv) The scientific study of human population is called demography.
(a) : Depo-Provera are progesterone-derivative injections.
Read the following statements and select the option having both incorrect statements.
(i) Condoms decrease sperm motility.
(ii) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are for both males and females.
(iii) IUDs are inserted by expert nurses.
(iv) Sterilisation is a terminal method to prevent further pregnancy.
(b) : Condom, made of thin rubber or latex, is used to cover the penis in the male just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen (sperms) does not enter into the female reproductive tract. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also made of rubber and are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow.
\(
\begin{array}{|c|l|c|l|}
\hline & \text { Method } & & \text { Mode of Action } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { Oral pill } & \text { (i) } & \text { Prevents sperms reaching cervix } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { Condom } & \text { (ii) } & \text { Suppresses sperm motility } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Vasectomy } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Prevents ovulation } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Copper T } & \text { (iv) } & \text { Semen contains no sperms } \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(c)
Match the contraceptive methods given under column I with their examples given under column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|c|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { Chemical } & \text { (i) } & \text { Tubectomy and vasectomy } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { IUDs } & \text { (ii) } & \text { Copper T and lippes’ loop } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Barriers } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Condom and cervical cap } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Sterilisation } & \text { (iv) } & \text { Spermicidal jelly and foam } \\
\hline & & \text { (v) } & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Coitus interruptus and calendar } \\
\text { method }
\end{array} \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(a)
\(
\text { What does the given figure represent? }
\)
(d) : Vasectomy is a surgical contraception method performed in males. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small cut on the scrotum. This prevents sperm transport.
Which of the following contraceptive methods correctly matches with its mode of action?
The correct option is B Oral pills – Inhibit ovulation and implantation
– Tubectomy – Blocks gamete transport.
– Oral pills – Inhibit ovulation and implantation.
– Diaphragms – Prevent sperm from reaching an ovum.
– IUDs – Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
\(
\text { Which of the following figures shows tubectomy? }
\)
(b) : Tubectomy is a permanent contraception method. It is a surgical method carried out in females in which a small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small cut in the abdomen or through vagina. It prevents the transport of gametes.
Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|c|l|c|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { Natural methods } & \text { (i) } & \text { Coitus interruptus } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { IUDs } & \text { (ii) } & \text { LNG – 20 } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { Barrier methods } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Diaphragms } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Surgical methods } & \text { (iv) } & \text { Multiload 375 } \\
\hline \text { E. } & \text { Oral contraceptives } & \text { (v) } & \text { Saheli } \\
\hline & & \text { (vi) } & \text { Nirodh } \\
\hline & & \text { (vii) } & \text { Sterilisation } \\
\hline & & \text { (viii) } & \text { Vasectomy } \\
\hline & & \text { (ix) } & \text { CuT } \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(a)
Which of the following contraceptive methods has poor reversibility?
(c) : Figure (c) is of vasectomy which is a surgical contraception method that has a poor reversibility.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding surgical methods of contraception?
(i) These are generally advised to the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
(ii) Surgical procedure in male is called tubectomy and that in the female is called vasectomy.
(iii) Reversibility is easily possible.
(iv) They block gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.
(c) : Surgical method in male and female is called vasectomy and tubectomy respectively. Both methods are very effective but their reversibility is very poor.
Which among the following birth control measures is considered to be highly effective?
(d)
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present?
(d)
The accompanying diagram shows the uterine tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S).
In which two women is fertilisation impossible at present?
(c) : Figure ‘ R ‘ is showing complete blockage of both the Fallopian tubes and figure ‘ S ‘ is showing tubectomy which is a surgical method of contraception in females. When both the Fallopian tubes are blocked or cut and tied, there will be no transport of gametes and thus no fertilisation.
Which of the following is a full proof method of contraception?
(d)
Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy?
(c) : In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small cut on the scrotum. This prevents the movement of sperms into the urethra.
Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in the following statements.
(i) Destruction of embryo or fetus in the uterus is called \(\qquad\)
(ii) Government of India legalised MTP in the year
\(\qquad\)
(iii) Natural family planning method is also called
\(\qquad\)
(iv) \(\qquad\) is a method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from vagina just before ejaculation.
(v) \(\qquad\) is a copper releasing and \(\qquad\) is a hormone releasing intra uterine devices.
(b)
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: MTP is considered relatively safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Statement 2: Fetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissues after the first trimester.
(a) : MTP is the termination of pregnancy before the fetus becomes viable. It is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancies and is comparatively safe upto first trimester ( 12 weeks) of pregnancy. After the first trimester, MTP becomes more risky as the fetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissues.
Which of the following two statements are correct?
(i) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives.
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
(a) : Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto 6 months. Contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for 21 days starting within the first five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days it has to be repeated. Emergency contraceptive pills can be taken within 72 hours of unprotected copulation to prevent pregnancy.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?
(d)
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
(a) : Syphilis is a bacterial disease caused by Treponema pallidum. It is transmitted through sexual contact and from mother to fetus during pregnancy. In the first stage of this disease, painless ulcer or chancre appears on the genitals and swelling of lymph nodes occur.
The sexually transmitted infection, that can affect both the male and female.genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(c)
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by the infection of
(a) : Syphilis is a bacterial disease caused by Treponema pallidum. It is transmitted through sexual contact and from mother to fetus during pregnancy. In the first stage of this disease, painless ulcer or chancre appears on the genitals and swelling of lymph nodes occur.Â
Complications due to various STIs may lead to
(d) : Complications may arise due to negligence or absence of symptoms attached to STDs. This lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), abortions, still births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Given below are three statements \(\)(A-C)\(\) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in any two statements.
A. Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexuall intercourse are collectively called (i) diseases.
B. Genital herpes is (ii) disease.
C. Sterilisation in males is (iii) while in females is (iv).
(a) : Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexual transmitted diseases or venereal diseases. Genital herpes is an incurable viral disease. Sterlisation in males is vasectomy while in females is tubectomy.
Consider the following statements and select the option stating which ones are true $(T)$ and which ones are false (F).
(i) There are many side effects of tubectomy and vasectomy.
(ii) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation.
(iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation.
(iv) Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by herpes virus.
(v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate and MMR.
(d) : There are no side effects of tubectomy and vasectomy. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg transport. Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by human papilloma virus (HPV).
Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
\(
\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline & \text { Column I } & & \text { Column II } \\
\hline \text { A. } & \text { Syphilis } & \text { (i) } & \text { Human papilloma virus } \\
\hline \text { B. } & \text { Chancroid } & \text { (ii) } & \text { Haemophilus ducreyi } \\
\hline \text { C. } & \text { AIDS } & \text { (iii) } & \text { Treponema pallidum } \\
\hline \text { D. } & \text { Genital warts } & \text { (iv) } & \text { HIV } \\
\hline
\end{array}
\)
(a)
Given below is a list of few sexually transmitted infections. Identify the diseases caused by bacteria among these.
(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) Amoebiasis
(iii) Trichomoniasis
(iv) Chancroid
(v) Syphilis
(b) : Amoebiasis and trichomoniasis are protozoan diseases.
It is a disease which mainly affects mucous membrane of urinogenital tract. In males, burning feeling on passing urine, a yellow discharge accompanied by fever, headache and feeling of illness occurs. Its name is
(b) : Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It spreads through sexual contact, common toilets and under-clothes. Gonorrhoea affects both male and female genitals. The bacterium lives in genital tubes, produces pus-containing discharge, pain around genitalia and burning sensation during urination. It damages the eyes of babies born of infected mothers.
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted infections caused by virus only?
(c) : Syphilis, gonorrhoea and chancroid are bacterial STDs, Chlamydiasis is caused by Chlamydia. Scabies is caused by arthropods and trichomoniasis by protozoa.
Confirmatory test for STDs is
(d) : Confirmatory tests for STDs are culture and microscopic observation with specific staining, detection of specific antigen/ antibody using Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA), DNA hybridisation and polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(d)
The common means of transmission of AIDS is
(d) : AIDS is a viral disease caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). The common means of transmission of AIDS are:
(i) Infected blood transfusion
(ii) Sexual intercourse with an infected partner without any physical barrier like condom
(iii) From infected mother to child through placenta
(iv) Use of contaminated needles, razors and syringes
(v) Artificial insemination
(vi) Organ transplantation
Which of the following sets contain only incurable STDS are not completely curable?
(d)
To avoid transmission of STDs we should
(i) Avoid sex with multiple partners
(ii) Always have unprotected sex
(iii) Use condoms during coitus
(iv) Avoid sex with unknown partners
(v) Avoid sharing of needles
(b)
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Syphilis can only be detected by using western blotting.
Statement 2 : ELISA cannot be used to detect hepatitis B.
(d) : Syphilis can be diagnosed using antibody detection, e.g., VDRL and ELISA test. Hepatitis B can be diagnosed by hepatitis B surface antigen (HCBS Ag) and ELISA.
World AIDS day is on
(b)
Select the incorrect match.
(d)
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is never transmitted through sexual contact with the infected person.
Statement \(2: \mathrm{HBV}\) vaccine is a third generation vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology.
(d) : Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be transmitted through blood transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, tears, intravenous drug abuse, tattooing, ear and nose piercing, sharing of razors, etc. Hepatitis \(B\) virus vaccine is the second generation vaccine produced from transgenic yeast by recombinant DNA technology.
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART)
(c) : Inability to conceive or produce children even after unprotected sexual intercourse is called infertility. Specialised infertility clinics can help in diagnosis and proper treatment of infertile couples. But, when such treatment is not possible, the couples can be assisted to have children through certain special techniques called assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
Consider the following statements and select the option stating which ones are true ( \(T\) ) and which ones are false (F).
(i) Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
(ii) Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in the female partner only.
(iii) Complete lactation could help in contraception.
(iv) Creating awareness can help create a reproductively healthy society.
(c) : Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in either male or female or both the partners.
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
(a) : In test tube baby or in vitro fertilisation technique, the ovum is fertilised with the sperm outside the body of a woman providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the uterus. The zygote formed is grown inside a culture and zygote or early embryo is transferred in fallopian tubes and embryo with mor than 8 blastomeres is transferred in uterues, where it develops into fetus.
Which two of the following statements are incorrect regarding in vitro fertilisation?
(i) In this method, ova from the wife/donor female and sperms from the husband/donor male are induced to form zygote in the uterus.
(ii) If the embryo is having 2 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus.
(iii) If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus.
(iv) Embryo with 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tubes.
(b) : In test tube baby or in vitro fertilisation technique, the ovum is fertilised with the sperm outside the body of a woman providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the uterus. The zygote formed is grown inside a culture and zygote or early embryo is transferred in fallopian tubes and embryo with mor than 8 blastomeres is transferred in uterues, where it develops into fetus.
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the Fallopian tube?
(b) : In in vitro fertilisation (IVF), zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage is transferred into the fallopian tube.
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?
(a) : In test tube baby programme, the zygote is allowed to divide upto 8 blastomeres in the laboratory, then it is transferred into the Fallopian tube. This technique is called ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer).
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by
(b) : The first test tube baby born by IVF-ET (in vitro Fertilisation-Embryo Transfer) technique was Louise Joy Brown. The baby was born on July 25, 1978, in Oldham, Lancashire, England under the supervision of Dr. Patrick Steptoe and Dr. Robert Edwards.
Read the following statements.
(i) Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular problems.
(ii) A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse the embryo is called surrogate mother.
(iii) Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilisation but with some abnormalities.
(iv) Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family and human species.
(v) Fetal sex determination test should not be banned. Which of the following pair consists of incorrect statements?
(c) : Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilisation without any abnormality. Fetal sex determination test should be banned as it is being misused for female feticide.
Which of the following is ART?
(d) : Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method of birth control.
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
(a) : Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) is used in females who cannot produce ova but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development of embryo in the oviducts.
Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment?
(b) : Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) is used in females who cannot produce ova but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development of embryo in the oviducts.
Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low sperm count?
(c) : ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is the technique where sperms either from husband or healthy donor are artificially introduced either into ovum to carry out fertilisation.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the Fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce an ovum, is called as GIFT.
Statement 2: Transfer of early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube of the female, is called ZIFT.
(a)
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(b) : In GIFT, ovum from the donor female is surgically removed and then introduced into the fallopian tube of females incapable of producing ovum for fertilisation.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) India’s first test tube baby’s name is Louise Jay Brown.
(ii) Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called infertility.
(iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete formation.
(iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.
(a) : Louise Joy Brown was first test tube born in England. Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete transport.
You cannot copy content of this page